BPSC TRE 1 PYQ Quiz – Higher Secondary Teacher Exam Subject Zoology

BPSC TRE Previous Question Paper Quiz

विद्यालय अध्यापक परीक्षा के पूछे गए प्रश्न

For Class (1-5), (6-8), (9-10), (11-12)


 

Results

#1. Which of the following is not a correct match?

Explanation: Corona radiata is a layer of follicular cells surrounding the ovum, not sperm. Sertoli cells provide nutrition to developing sperm, and Leydig cells produce testosterone.


#2. Test tube baby means a baby born when

Explanation: A test tube baby is conceived via in vitro fertilization (IVF), where fertilization occurs outside the body in a laboratory dish, and the embryo is then implanted into the uterus.

#3. Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila are

Explanation: Drosophila salivary gland chromosomes are polytene chromosomes, which are large and easily visible due to repeated DNA replication without cell division.

#4. In the F₂ generation, 9 : 7 ratio represents

Explanation: A 9:7 ratio in F2 is characteristic of complementary gene interaction (epistasis), where two genes interact such that the recessive homozygous condition of either gene masks the expression of the other.

#5. If the father in a family has a disease while the mother is normal, the daughters only inherited this disease and not the sons, name of this type of inheritance is

Explanation: If only daughters inherit the disease from an affected father and normal mother, it indicates X-linked dominant inheritance, as the father passes his X chromosome to all daughters.




#6. The process of DNA replication is affected by an enzyme known as

Explanation: DNA replication involves multiple enzymes including DNA ligase (joins fragments) and DNA polymerase I (fills gaps and proofreads). Ribonuclease is involved in RNA degradation, not DNA replication.

#7. A chromosome with a centromere near the middle is called

Explanation: Metacentric chromosomes have a centromere located at or near the middle, giving two equal arms.

#8. Which is the book in which Darwin published the Theory of Evolution?

Explanation: Charles Darwin published his theory in On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection in 1859.

#9. Pea plants were used in Mendel’s experiments because

Explanation: Mendel chose pea plants because they exhibited clear, contrasting traits (e.g., tall vs. short, yellow vs. green seeds) and could be easily cross-pollinated.

#10. In which aspects, Darwin’s theory is wrong?

Explanation: Darwin’s theory of natural selection is a well-supported explanation for evolution. The listed aspects are not considered “wrong” but are core components of his theory.




#11. The amino acid coded by the start codon for protein synthesis is

Explanation: In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the start codon AUG codes for methionine, which initiates protein synthesis.

#12. In humans, the numbers of ova and sperms that would be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatoceytes during gameto-genesis are

Explanation: Each secondary oocyte yields one ovum (plus one polar body), so 100 secondary oocytes → 100 ova. Each secondary spermatocyte yields two spermatids, so 100 secondary spermatocytes → 200 sperms.

#13. Crossing-over occurs between

Explanation: Crossing-over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during the pachytene stage of prophase I in meiosis.

#14. The Bartholin glands of the female reproductive system are located on the

Explanation: Bartholin glands (greater vestibular glands) are located on either side of the vaginal opening and secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina.

#15. If both genotype and phenotype show the same ratio of 1:2:1 in the F₂ generation, it shows

Explanation: A 1:2:1 ratio in both genotype and phenotype occurs in cases of incomplete dominance (e.g., flower color in snapdragons) or codominance (e.g., ABO blood group).




#16. Which of the following enzymes separates the two strands of DNA during replication?

Explanation: Helicase unwinds and separates the two DNA strands by breaking hydrogen bonds. DNA polymerase adds nucleotides; gyrase relieves supercoiling.

#17. Cytoplasmic inheritance is also called maternal inheritance because

Explanation: In cytoplasmic (maternal) inheritance, organelles like mitochondria and chloroplasts are inherited via the cytoplasm of the egg, not the sperm.


#19. Which of the following two traits is characteristic of a single gene?

Explanation: In Mendel’s experiments, each trait (e.g., seed color, seed shape) is controlled by separate genes. No single gene controls two different traits.

#20. Which of the following enzymes is used to cut DNA molecules in rDNA technology?

Explanation: Restriction enzymes (endonucleases) cut DNA at specific recognition sites, essential for recombinant DNA technology.




#21. ______ in 1983 used recombinant DNA technology to produce insulin.

Explanation: Eli Lilly and Company, in collaboration with Genentech, commercially produced human insulin using recombinant DNA technology in 1983.

#22. Which of the following is the first genetically engineered hormone?

Explanation: Human insulin was the first hormone produced using genetic engineering (recombinant DNA technology) and approved for medical use in 1982.

#23. Which of the following statements is false?

Explanation: Statements B and C are false. Drones are male, develop from unfertilized eggs (haploid), while workers develop from fertilized eggs (diploid).

#24. The DNA fingerprinting pattern of a child is

Explanation: In DNA fingerprinting, the child inherits half of their DNA from each parent, so their band pattern is a combination of both parents’ patterns.

#25. Which of the following statements is true?

Explanation: An immunogen is a substance that can provoke an immune response (antigenicity + immunogenicity). All immunogens are antigens, but some antigens (haptens) are not immunogens alone.





#26. If more than single species of fish is cultured at a time, then it is called

Explanation: Polyculture refers to the simultaneous cultivation of multiple fish species in the same pond, often to utilize different ecological niches.


#27. Which of the following is a step taken by the Government to protect the wildlife?

Explanation: Governments implement conservation projects (e.g., Project Tiger, wildlife sanctuaries) to protect endangered species and habitats.

#28. On what does the harmful effect of pollution depend?

Explanation: Harmful effects depend on pollutant concentration, exposure duration, and the susceptibility of the organism.


#29. Absence of acrosome will affect which activity in a normal sperm?

Explanation: The acrosome contains enzymes (hyaluronidase, acrosin) that help the sperm penetrate the egg’s outer layers during fertilization.

#30. How can viable material of endangered species be preserved?

Explanation: Endangered species can be preserved through cloning (somatic cell nuclear transfer), gene banks (cryopreservation of gametes/embryos), and maintaining genetic diversity in gene pools.




#31. Who among the following is known as the father of biological classification?

Explanation: Carolus Linnaeus is known as the father of modern taxonomy for developing the binomial nomenclature system.

#32. In which State, the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary is located?

Explanation: Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary is located in Bihar, India, on the Ganges River.

#33. Which of the following is an example of dense irregularly arranged connective tissue?

Explanation: The dermis of the skin is composed of dense irregular connective tissue, providing strength and elasticity.

#34. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?

Explanation: Epstein-Barr, Varicella-Zoster, and Herpes simplex are all DNA viruses (Herpesviridae family), not RNA viruses.

#35. Which artery supplies oxygenated blood to rabbit brain?

Explanation: The internal carotid artery supplies oxygenated blood to the brain in rabbits and other mammals.




#36. In transmission electron microscopy, ultrathin sections are stained by

Explanation: Uranyl acetate and lead citrate are commonly used as heavy metal stains to enhance contrast in TEM.

#38. Facilitated diffusion differs from simple diffusion by

Explanation: Facilitated diffusion requires carrier proteins (permeases) and is stereospecific, unlike simple diffusion which is non-specific and does not require carriers.

#39. The numbers of cisternae in a stack of Golgi complex found in most animals and plants are

Explanation: A typical Golgi stack consists of 3 to 8 cisternae in most animal and plant cells.

#40. A modified form of smooth endoplasmic reticulum found in striated muscles is known as

Explanation: The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized smooth ER in muscle cells that stores and releases calcium ions for contraction




#41. The animals from which of the following phyla are exclusively marine?

Explanation: Echinodermata (e.g., starfish, sea urchins) are exclusively marine. Porifera and Mollusca have freshwater and terrestrial representatives.

#42. Which of the following enzymes is found on the outer membrane of mitochondrial cristae?

Explanation: Choline dehydrogenase is located on the outer surface of the inner mitochondrial membrane (cristae), involved in electron transport.

#43. The leucoplasts which function in the storage of starch are called

Explanation: Amyloplasts are a type of leucoplast that store starch, commonly found in roots and tubers.

#44. Which of the following is not the type of secondary lysosomes?

Explanation: Phagosomes are vesicles formed around ingested particles, which fuse with lysosomes to become phagolysosomes (secondary lysosomes). Granules and residual bodies are types of secondary lysosomes.

#45. Which activity takes place during post-mitotic gap phase (G₁)?

Explanation: During G phase, the cell grows and synthesizes RNA and proteins in preparation for DNA synthesis in the S phase.




#46. Synapsis takes place during

Explanation: Synapsis (pairing of homologous chromosomes) occurs during the zygotene stage of prophase I in meiosis.

#47. Which of the following is an example of a simple protein?

Explanation: Haemoglobin is a simple protein (conjugated with heme), but among the options, it is the best example. Thyroglobulin and caeruloplasmin are glycoproteins.

#48. Which of the following liver cells phagocytizes dead and inactive RBCs?

Explanation: Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages in the liver that phagocytose old and damaged red blood cells.

#49. Which marriage should be prohibited from biological point of view?

#50. Each actin (thin) filament is made up of

Explanation: An actin filament is composed of two helical strands of globular (G) actin monomers twisted together to form fibrous (F) actin. Tropomyosin and troponin are regulatory proteins associated with actin.




#51. Cushing’s syndrome occurs due to

Explanation: Cushing’s syndrome results from prolonged high levels of cortisol, often due to adrenal tumors or excessive ACTH.

#52. Which of the following methods is used for the measurement of population density for more mobile organisms?

Explanation: The capture-recapture method (Lincoln-Petersen index) is used for mobile animals, while quadrat method is for sessile plants.

#53. Desert ecosystem is characterised by :

Explanation: Deserts are characterized by extreme temperatures, very low rainfall, and sparse vegetation.

#54. Which of the following hormones from adenohypophysis controls the function of the seminiferous tubules?

Explanation: FSH stimulates Sertoli cells in seminiferous tubules to support spermatogenesis. LH acts on Leydig cells to produce testosterone.

#55. From the following which enzyme is produced by epididymis?

Explanation: Neutral α-glucosidase is a marker enzyme secreted by the epididymis, important for sperm maturation




#56. In which region of the fallopian tube fertilization takes place?

Explanation: Fertilization typically occurs in the ampulla, the widest part of the fallopian tube.

#57. The ovary is suspended from the body wall by

Explanation: The mesovarium is a fold of peritoneum that suspends the ovary from the posterior body wall.

#58. The pubertal changes in secondary sex characteristics result from increasing levels of which of the following hormones?

Explanation: Gonadal steroids (testosterone in males, estrogen in females) drive the development of secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.

#59. During spermatogenesis the type B spermatogonia divides by

Explanation: Type B spermatogonia undergo mitotic divisions to produce primary spermatocytes, which then enter meiosis.




#61. At what interval of pregnancy, the foetus fills the entire uterus?

Explanation: By the end of the 24th week, the fetus occupies the entire uterine cavity.

#62. The hormones involved in the process of parturition are

Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions, and relaxin helps relax pelvic ligaments and soften the cervix during childbirth.

#63. The world’s first test tube baby born in 1978 was

Explanation: Louise Brown, born in the UK in 1978, was the first successful IVF baby.

#64. The available male contraceptives for male are

Explanation: Common male contraceptives include condoms (barrier) and vasectomy (surgical sterilization).

#65. Which was the first well-recorded European outbreak of sexually transmitted disease (STD)?

Explanation: Syphilis was the first well-documented STD outbreak in Europe in the late 15th century, known as the “Great Pox.”




#66. What was the phenotype ratio in the Mendel’s law of independent assortment in F₂ generation?

Explanation: In a dihybrid cross, independent assortment gives a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 in the F2 generation.

#67. What is incomplete dominance?

Explanation: In incomplete dominance, heterozygotes show an intermediate phenotype because neither allele is completely dominant.

#68. Who proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance?

Explanation: Sutton and Boveri independently proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance, linking Mendel’s laws to chromosome behavior.

#69. The chromosomes appear V-shaped during anaphasic movement are known as

Explanation: Metacentric chromosomes have centromeres in the middle, forming a V shape during anaphase as sister chromatids are pulled apart.

#70. Which of the following types of PCR is used for quantification of amplified DNA?

Explanation: Quantitative real-time PCR (qRT-PCR) measures DNA amplification in real time, allowing quantification of starting template.




#71. The most important use of recombinant DNA technology is

Explanation: The primary application is cloning specific genes for research, medicine, and industry.

#72. Which of the following animals produced very first time by means of cloning technique with a nucleus from an adult donor cell?

Explanation: Dolly the sheep (1996) was the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell using nuclear transfer.

#73. The first three hybrids of Bt cotton developed in India by

Explanation: MMBL introduced the first three Bt cotton hybrids in India: MECH 12, MECH 162, and MECH 184.

#74. DNA fingerprinting was developed by

Explanation: Sir Alec Jeffreys developed DNA fingerprinting (DNA profiling) in 1984.

#75. Arrange the following ingredients of poultry feed for layers in decreased percentage: 1. Decorticated groundnut cake 2. Barley 3. Polished rice 4. Yellow maize 5. Corn gluten

Explanation: In layer feed, yellow maize has the highest percentage, followed by polished rice, barley, groundnut cake, and corn gluten.




#76. Which of the following is the largest honeybee?

Explanation: Apis dorsata (the giant honey bee) is the largest species among honeybees.

#77. Which is the disease causing Protozoa in human?

Explanation: Leishmania causes leishmaniasis, a parasitic disease transmitted by sandflies.

#78. Which of the following activities of modern technological man considered to cause indirect or unintentional impact on natural environment?

Explanation: All listed activities can have unintended environmental impacts: land modification (habitat loss), construction (pollution), DDT (bioaccumulation).

#79. Which of the following trees got nearly extinct with the extinction of dodo animal?

Explanation: The Calvaria tree (Sideroxylon grandiflorum) relied on the dodo for seed dispersal; its decline followed the dodo’s extinction.

#80. Which of the following is the acute health effects due to exposure to very high levels of radiation?

Explanation: Acute high-dose radiation exposure causes immediate effects like skin burns, nausea, and radiation sickness (acute radiation syndrome).




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